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| Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam. Solved Paper Posted: 23 Oct 2010 10:43 AM PDT Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam. Solved Paper Computer General Knowledge 1. If a word is typed that is not in Word's dictionary, a ___ wavy underline appears below the word. (A) red (B) green (C) blue (D) black (E) None of these Ans (A) 2. The _____ button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions. (A) Search (B) Cut (C) Document (D) Undo (E) None of these Ans (D) 3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered ___ (A) a formula (B) text (C) a name (D) a title (E) None of these Ans (B) 4. ________ Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data. (A) Word processing (B) Presentation graphics (C) Database Management Systems (D) Electronic Spreadsheet (E) None of these Ans (C) 5. A _________ represent approximately one billion memory locations. (A) kilobyte (B) megabyte (C) gigabyte (D) terabyte (E) None of these Ans (C) 6. ______ cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells. (A) Formatting (B) Merging (C) Embedding (D) Splitting (E) None of these Ans (B) 7. The operating system is the most common type of ______________ software. (A) communication (B) application (C) system (D) word-processing (E) None of these Ans (C) 8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are ____ (A) Primary-clicking (B) pointing (C) Double-clicking (D) Secondary-clicking (E) None of these Ans (C) 9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called ___ (A) cells (B) sheets (C) block lines (D) gridlines (E) None of these Ans (D) 10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, __________ to erase to the right of the insertion point. (A) press the left mouse key (B) double-click the right mouse key (C) press the BACKSPACE key (D) press the delete key (E) None of these Ans (D) 11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT: A provide a way for the user to interact with the computer. B manage the central processing unit (CPU). C manage memory and storage. D enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing. Ans (D) 12. During the boot process, the ____________ looks for the system files. A CD B. BIOS C. CPU D. DVD AnS (B) 13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen. A GUIs B Icons C Menus D Windows Answer: C 14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time. A Multitasking B Streamlining C Multiuser D Simulcasting Answer: A 15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an: A action. B event. C interrupt. D activity. Answer: C 16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor's attention. A CPU B slice of time C stack D event Answer: B 17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as: A application programming interfaces (APIs). B complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS). C device drivers. D bootstrap loaders. Answer: A 18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system. A point-and-click B user-friendly C command-driven D Mac Answer: C 19. An interrupt handler is a(n): A location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts. B peripheral device. C utility program. D special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request. Answer: D 20. A spooler is a(n): A location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out. B print job. C program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print. D message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed. Answer: C 21. Virtual memory is typically located: A on a floppy disk. B in the CPU. C in a flash card. D on the hard drive. Answer: D 22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to: A maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer. B hold a program's data or instructions in virtual memory when it can't fit in RAM. C prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment. D allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously. Answer: B 23. The definition of thrashing is: A swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently. B insufficient hard disk space. C too many processors being managed by the operating system. D inaccurate information stored in the registry. Answer: A 24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT: A Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode. B Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons. C Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors. D Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices. Answer: B 25. Verification of a login name and password is known as: A configuration. B accessibility. C authentication. D logging in. Answer: C 26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer's: A CPU. B platform. C BIOS. D CMOS. Answer: B 27. The following message generally means: A a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive. B the CD drive is not functioning. C the BIOS is corrupted. D there is a problem loading a device. Answer: A 28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process? A Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings B Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings C Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings D Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system Answer: B 29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT: A load the operating system into RAM. B the power-on self-test. C activate the basic input/output system (BIOS). D load application programs. Answer: D 30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM. A BIOS B API C device driver D supervisor program Answer: A 31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in: A RAM. B ROM. C the CPU. D the hard drive. Answer: B 32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process. A configuration B CMOS C POST D ROM Answer: C 33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the: A registry. B API. C CMOS. D kernel. Answer: D 34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)? A The ScanDisk utility begins to run. B The video card and video memory are tested. C The BIOS identification process occurs. D Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly. Answer: A 35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT: A any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory. B the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed. C this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file). D virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive. Answer: A 36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer's contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT: A files. B folders. D drives. D systems. Answer: D 37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT: A windows are an example of a command-driven environment. B windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop. C more than one window can be open at a time. D toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows. Answer: A 38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT: A A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference. B Files can be generated from an application. C Files are stored in RAM. D Files should be organized in folders. Answer: C 39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates: A an open folder. B the folder contains subfolders. C a text file. D a graphics file. Answer: B 40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view. A List B Thumbnails C Details D Icon Answer: C..... |
| Posted: 23 Oct 2010 10:39 AM PDT .....SBI CLERK MODEL QUESTION NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST 1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is: a. 199999 b. 201110 c. 211110 d. 1099999 e. None of these 2. Value of 112 * 54. is : a. 6700 b. 70000 c. 76500 d. 77200 e. None of these 3. 1399*1399 a. 1687401 b. 1901541 c. 1943211 d. 1957201 e. None of these 4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5's. The smallest such no. is a. 41625 b. 42135 c. 42515 d. 42735 e. None of these 5. If n is –ve no. then which of the following is least. a. 0 b. –n c. 2n d. n2 e. None of these 6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is : a. 0 b. -3 c. -4 d. -5 e. None of these e. None of these 7. The least prime no. is : a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. None of these 8. The sum of prime no.'s b/w 60 and 75 is: a. 199 b. 201 c. 211 d. 272 e. None of these 9. Total no. of even prime no.'s is : a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. None e. None of these 10. How many No's B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5. a. 40 b. 100 c. 110 d. 120 e. None of these 11. The digit in unit's place of product 81*82……..*89 is: a. 0 b. 2 c. 6 d. 8 e. None of these 12. The sum of first 45 natural no's is : a. 1035 b. 1280 c. 2070 d. 2140 e. None of these 13. The unit's digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is : a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 e. None of these 14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11 a. 235641 b. 245642 c. 315624 d. 415624 e. None of these 15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural no's is: a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 120 e. None of these 16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by: a. 3 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 e. None of these 17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is : a. 10 b. 20 c. 35 d. 80 e. None of these 18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is : a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. None of these 19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687: a. 98928 b. 99479 c. 99615 d. 100166 e. None of these 20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is a. 6 b. 12 c. 14 d. 18 e. None of these 21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99: a. 99909 b. 99981 c. 99990 d. 99999 e. None of these 22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be a. 1 b. 2 c. 7 d. 21 e. None of these 23. The diff. b/w 2 no's is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is : a. 240 b. 270 c. 295 d. 360 e. None of these 24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is : a. 4236 b. 4306 c. 4336 d. 5336 e. None of these 25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is : a. 9947 b. 9987 c. 9989 d. 9996 e. None of these ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION : 1) a 2) 1120000/16 = b 3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d 4) 555555/13 = d 5)c 6)c 7)c 8)d 9)b 10)c 11)a 12)a 13)c 14)d 15)c 16)d 17)a 18)c 19)c 20)c 21)c 22)d 23)b 24)d 25)b SBI BANK CLERK NUMERICAL ABILITY1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.? (a) 30 minutes (b) 25 minutes (c) 28 minutes (d) 34 minutes 2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ? (a) 4096 (b) 8192 (c) 512 (d) 1024 3. Find the number missing at question mark: 10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149 (a) 100 (b) 103 (c) 78 (d) 128 4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from 'Trivandrum' and reaches 'Attingal' in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance? (a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes 5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure? (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6 6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y? (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18 7. One fourth percent of 180 is: (a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45 8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I? (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150 9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ............... (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14 10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase? (a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17 11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ............. (a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400 12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%? (a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210 13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125? (a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50 14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long? (a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds 15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be ....... (a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds 16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams? (a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40 17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work? (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6 18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers (a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050 19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops: (a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m 20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2 21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ........ (a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3 (c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution 22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2 23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years? (a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15% 24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5 25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM (a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400 26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in (a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes 27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats (a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes 28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is: (a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300 29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them? (a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days 30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number? (a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27 31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit? (a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 % 32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is: (a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2 33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number? (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0 34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks? (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450 35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the (a) Interior of the triangle (b) Midpoint of the diameter (c) Exterior of the triangle (d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle 36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle? (a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180 37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle? (a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre 38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is 'r' what is its slant height? (a) 3r (b) 4r (c) √5r (d) √3r 39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas? (a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6 40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) √2 (d) √3 41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects? (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45 42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream? (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr 43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer? (a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32 44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm. (a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm 45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ...... (a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57 46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is: (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30 47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 = (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21 48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30 (a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750 49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B? (a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510 50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number: (a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31 Answers 1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A 2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A 3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B 4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C 5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A 6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C 7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B 8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D 9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B 10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B |
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